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Exam Code: 00M-604
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Government Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What can the IBM Government Industry Framework foundation platform also be used for?
A. Other objectives
B. Other training programs
C. Other industries
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 What tools are smart governments empowering staff and field workers with while safely securing
physical environments?
A. Video surveillance and mobile devices
B. Transportation and communications
C. Manpower surveillance and mobile devices
D. Internet and mobile surveillance devices
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does a pre-integrated and pre-tested stack of software products address in each project or
solution in the Government Framework.?
A. A set of products
B. The pain points
C. A set of standards
D. A set of goals
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-702
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 You want to improve one TM1 cube by adding Skipcheck and Feeder statements to a Rules file. Which
statement is correct?
A. The addition of rule-calculated cells to a cube will cause reduced consumption of RAM.
B. The data integrity of consolidated cells will improve.
C. The performance of views containing rule-calculated cells will improve.
D. Cross cube rule statements will be no longer be ignored.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the elements of a rule?
A. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, Terminator, and Sequence Indicator
B. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, and Priority Flag
C. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, and Terminator
D. Area Definition, Formula, Terminator, and Priority Flag
Answer: C

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NO.3 The logging parameter within \}CubeProperties is designated by a "Yes" or "No" for each cube.
What does this define?
A. Data changes to the TM1 cubes logged into the tm1s.log file
B. cubepropertiesdataloggedintothetm1server.log
C. dimensionupdatesloggedintothetm1audit.log
D. userpermissionsloggedtothetm1server.log
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three are typically stored within a TM1 control object.? (Choose three.)
A. A list of TM1 users
B. TM1 system errors
C. Data required by the TM1 server to perform a driver-based calculation
D. TM1 object-level security permissions
E. Statistical performance data about the TM1 server
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Cross-Cube Feeder statements will result in a Cube Dependency relationship between the Dependent
Cube (containing the feeder) and the Base Cube (the target cube of the Feeder from the Dependent Cube)
if the Feeding cells contain data at Server startup or if initially null at server startup, the feeding cells are
subsequently updated during the server session.
Which statement describes the relationship between the cubes having the Cube Dependency
relationship?
A. Cell value updates to the Dependent Cube will invalidate the cache of the Base Cube.
B. Cell value updates to the Base Cube will invalidate the cache of the Dependent Cube.
C. Cell value updates to the Dependent Cube will invalidate the Cube Dependency.
D. Cell value updates to the Base Cube will invalidate the Cube Dependency.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In a Turbolntegrator process, you need to create a cube structure before loading data into it. In which
tab would you create the cube?
A. Epilog
B. Metadata
C. Data
D. Parameters
Answer: B

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NO.7 The customer is experiencing performance issues with threads blocking as shown in the TM1
Operations Console.
Which setting within the tmls.cfg file improves writer response time by removing lock contention resulting
from concurrent cube data access?
A. AllowSeparateNandCRules=T
B. Parallellnteraction=T
C. UseStargateForRules=T
D. PersistentFeeders=T
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the entries in the tm1server.log shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The product dimension has been updated.
B. The process Update_Product_Dimension has not created an error log.
C. The process Update_Product_Dimension has no parameters.
D. The chore Scheduledjmport has completed.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An international enterprise has planners in European, Asian, and North American regions. The
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report globally on a daily basis from a single enterprise-reporting server located in Canada. The
enterprise wants to integrate the cube data from the different regions into a single reporting server in
Canada.
Which method accomplishes this goal?
A. Use the TM1 rules to push data from each regional server into the Canadian reporting server.
B. Use the TM1 rules to pull data from each regional server into the Canadian reporting server.
C. UsetheTM1 replication/synchronization in the Canadian server to pull data from the regional servers.
D. Use the TM1 replication/synchronization in the regional servers to push data to the Canadian server.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three parameters create a view extract of a cube either manually or when using Turbolntegrator?
(Choose three.)
A. Skip consolidated values.
B. Skip an ancestor of a specified element.
C. Skip zero/blank values.
D. Skip values greater than a specified numeric value.
E. Skip the eighth element in a dimension.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 00M-222
Exam Name: IBM (Tivoli Enterprise Asset Management Sales Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is IBM Maximo Spatial Asset Management?
A. Geospatially enabled asset and service management
B. A Maximo add-on that provides remote asset management
C. An asset management solution used by NASA
D. An asset management solution to manage linear asset
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which of the following industries are customers less likely to purchase Maximo Calibration.?
A. Government
B. Oil and Gas
C. Life Sciences
D. Nuclear
Answer: D

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NO.3 Today, many companies use converged assets to support their business operations that are responsible
for managing the converged assets?
A. Plant Engineers have sole responsibility for delivering on the converged asset performance
B. IT Managers have sole responsibility for making decisions on how to manage the converged asset
C. Plant engineers and IT Managers are jointly responsible for delivering high availability of the converged
asset performance
D. Neither Plant Engineers nor IT Managers focus on converged asset performance
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N13
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Intelligent Operations Center Technical Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 31 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Standard Operating Procedures are created through a Design Tool, which is:
A. an Eclipse-based IDE for diagramming the procedure
B. a graphical authoring tool where you can connect different types of nodes and actions
C. an XML definition tool for work flow definitions
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Hardware Deployment Kit should you use for basic Intelligent Operations Center Pilot program?
A. IBM System x3500 M3
B. IBM BladeCenter S
C. IBM BaldeCenter H
D. IBM zBX
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many integration points are currently defined for the Intelligent Operations Center?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 11
D. 20
Answer: C

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are NOT included in that deployment?
A. Root User not configured prior to installation.
B. Virtual Machine to Virtual Machine connectivity issues.
C. Feature complexity issues.
D. Database portability issues.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is not a part of creating a KPI (Key Performance Indicator)?
A. Formatting data input for the KPI metrics to be provided
B. Business Monitor Configuration for Inbound Event and KPI Model
C. Defining KPI Context Structure Definition
D. Write a custom portlet for each KPI
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-822
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Requirements Composer V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two actions can be taken against each artifact under review? (Choose two.)
A. approve
B. pass
C. disapprove
D. reject
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which detailed requirements do use cases contain?
A. functional requirements
B. non-functional requirements
C. testable requirements
D. feature requirements
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two capabilities in Rational Requirements Composer allow authors to create and modify artifact
content, attributes, and links in the Artifact editor? (Choose two.)
A. artifact format
B. Open Artifact checkbox
C. Edit button
D. double-clicking the artifact
E. right-clicking the artifact
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 With the appropriate privileges, which three actions can users take to manipulate folders? (Choose
three.)
A. move artifacts between folders within the same project area
B. move folders within a project within the same project area
C. copy folders from one project area to another
D. delete folders within a project within the same project area
E. link folders between project areas
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 An administrator wants to prevent a user role from updating project and personal dashboards. Where
should the administrator manage this from?
A. Manage Project Properties
B. Open My Personal Dashboard (default)
C. Manage this Project Area
D. Lifecycle Project Administration
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which valid system files can be uploaded to a Rational Requirements Composer project?
A. Word, Excel, CSV, and HTML only
B. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
C. Word, Excel, CSV, HTML, and images
D. Word, Excel, HTML, and images only
Answer: C

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NO.7 To ensure project success, what do teams need to pay attention to? (Choose two.)
A. creating a Use Case Diagram for the requirements
B. involving users as early as possible
C. creating a clear statement of business objectives
D. reviewing and validating requirements with stakeholders to achieve a shared vision and concurrence
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What does a business process diagram represent.?
A. global processes
B. enterprise processes
C. organizational processes
D. company to company processes
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement best describes the process of creating saved filters?
A. Saved filters are created, and then you define the filters that go into it.
B. After you have defined your collection, you can then decide which artifacts appear in the saved filter.
C. After you have created your artifacts, you can associate the artifacts to your filter.
D. After you have defined filter criteria, you can save the filter for future use.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does the use case model consists of?
A. actors and use cases
B. diagrams only
C. text only
D. diagrams and text
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-242
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a capability of the IBM WMS (Warehouse Management System)
Productivity Manager?
A. Automatic recording of productivity based on tasks performed.
B. Manual recording of productivity for tasks executed outside.
C. Pick-Pack Capabilities
D. Dynamic computation of SAM (Standard Allowable Minutes) based on historical task information.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the most common ERP/Order Management platform that IBM TMS (Transportation
Management System) platform interfaces with.?
A. Manhattan
B. AS400
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following processes CANNOT be performed by a partner?
A. Carrier On-Boarding
B. EDI Map Testing and Certification
C. Level One Support
D. New Organization Creation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following documents CANNOT be generated in the IBM TMS (Transportation Management
System)?
A. Shipment Manifest
B. Export Declaration
C. Master Bill of Lading
D. Custom LTL Manifest
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT one of the four core functional quadrants of the TMS (Transportation
Management System) solution?
A. Optimizer
B. Execution
C. Contract Management
D. Freight Payment
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is the term for data collection jobs in Rational Quality Manager?
A. Enable, Transmission, Load (ETL)
B. Enable, Transformation, Lead (ETL)
C. Extract, Transform, Load (ETL)
D. Extract, Transport, Load (ETL)
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens when migrating Rational ClearQuest TestManager product with associated automated
tests?
A. The Rational ClearQuest projects must be migrated before the automated scripts.
B. You must import or refer to the automated test scripts in IBM Rational Quality Manager before
migrating your Rational ClearQuest Test Manager projects.
C. The order in which project versus automated script migration does not matter.
D. Automated scripts are included when importing Rational ClearQuest Test Manager projects.
Answer: B

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NO.3 IBM Rational Quality Manager out-of-box reports are grouped under which three themes.? (Choose
three.)
A. defects
B. test case
C. cost
D. section manager
E. lab manager
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 Which statement is true about connecting to an IBM Rational RequisitePro server?
A. You must be a member of the IBM Rational Quality Manager (RQM) project RequisitePro.
B. You must be a member of the JazzAdmins group and a member of the RQM project RequisitePro.
C. You must be a member of the JazzAdmins group and have access to a Rational RequisitePro server
and project areas.
D. You must have a Quality Professional license.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are three acceptable parameters for the IBM Rational Quality Manager out-of-the-box report:
Execution Status using TER count? (Choose three.)
A. test plan
B. test milestone
C. defect logged
D. test case
E. build
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 RRDI supports which application server?
A. Tomcat
B. WAS (32-bit)
C. WAS (64-bit)
D. WebLogic
Answer: B

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NO.7 How do you find all the test artifacts that have the same tag? (Choose three.)
A. use a filter to find all test artifacts with the tagged value
B. use the Tag Cloud Dashboard viewlet to find all test artifacts with the tagged value
C. create a query for all test artifacts with the tagged value
D. perform a search to find all test artifacts with the tagged value
E. sort by the tag column on the View Test Cases/View Test Scripts views
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What are three valid category types in Rational Quality Manager? (Choose three.)
A. subcategories
B. required categories
C. multivalued categories
D. calculated categories
E. personal categories
Answer: A,B,C

IBM   000-823 practice test   000-823

NO.9 What are the possible states of a test plan in its state transition model?
A. draft, ready for review, reviewed, closed
B. draft, under review, approved, retired
C. created, under review, reviewed , retired
D. created, ready for review, approved, closed
Answer: B

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NO.10 In a manual test script, what is the difference between an execution step and a reporting step?
A. An execution step is an instruction for the tester, and a reporting step is a point in a test where the
tester evaluates the behavior of the application under test.
B. An execution step is an automated task, and a reporting step is a link to a library of reusable test
scripts.
C. An execution step is a task that the tester must perform, and a reporting step is a link to a defect or a
test case.
D. An execution step is a link to an automated test, and a reporting step is an instruction for the test to run
a report.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)
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Exam Name: IBM (IBM i 7.1 Administration)
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NO.1 A disaster recovery test is being performed, using backups from a production system. The
backup
process is as follows:
Full system save, using GO SAVE Option 21, for weekly backup
SAVCHGOBJ LIB(*ALL) is used for daily library backup, in addition to DLO and IFS saves
The disaster recovery test is at the point where libraries are ready to be restored
Which pair of actions will restore the libraries to the most recent save point, in the minimum
amount of time?
A. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. For
each daily tape, run a RSTLIB for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ.
B. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. Then
run a RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
C. Run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
Then run RSTLIB(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
D. For each daily tape, run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the daily tapes.
Then run RSTOBJ(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The threshold limit has been reached for the system ASP on a system running IBM i 7.1 . There
are some disk units configured to a user ASP available. Business continuing policy prevents the
administrator from stopping the system.
How could the system administrator correct the storage problem in the system ASP?
A. Increase the ASP threshold above the currently utilized storage.
B. Concurrently remove available disk units from user ASP using the Remove units from
configuration SST option and add them to system ASP.
C. Switch to the backup system using an HA solution and restart the original system to DST.
Remove the available disk units from user ASP and add them to system ASP.
D. Initiate a control panel function 21 to activate DST on the system console for the affected
partition. Use the DST feature to compress the parity stripe to increase available storage.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which graphical tool will help identity additional details about activity on the system, to
isolate the
root cause of performance problems?
A. PEX
B. iDoctor
C. Performance Monitor
D. Communications Trace
Answer: B

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NO.4 Journaling of a large library is running on SYSTEMA and the journal is system managed.
Remote
journaling to
SYSTEMB has been configured. Due to a communications problem between SYSTEMA and
SYSTEMB, remote journaling is not working and cannot be quickly restarted.
Disk utilization on SYSTEMA is increasing rapidly. To reduce disk utilization the administrator tries
to delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA. Attempts fail and the following message displays:
CPF705F: Receiver not replicated to 1 remote journals.
What must the administrator do to delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA?
A. Delete and recreate only the journal, and then delete the receivers.
B. Stop journaling, as this must be ended first, and then delete the receivers.
C. Use the DLTJRNRCV command and change the delete option parameter to ignore target
receivers.
D. Use the CHGJRN command to change the Manage Receivers parameter to allow user
management of journal receivers and then delete the receivers.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator has been asked to update an IBM i 7.1 system to the most current
Technology
Refresh available from IBM. Which method is the most appropriate to achieve the update?
A. Perform a D-mode IPL using the Technology Group PTF package SF99707.
B. Perform a slip install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
C. Perform a scratch install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
D. Perform an install of the Technology Group PTF package SF99707 using the GO PTF menu.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company has just purchased a new POWER7 server running IBM i 7.1 to replace an older
system running V5R4M5. Due to a mistake by a programmer on the V5R4 system, data was
accidently deleted. To recover, the administrator backs up the deleted data to virtual tape on the
7.1 server and attempts to restore it on the V5R4 server. The restore on the V5R4 server fails with
a message stating the data was saved from a more recent release of the operating system.
Which option will solve this problem?
A. Save the data to physical media.
B. Set the target release parameter to V5R4M0 when saving the data.
C. ETP the virtual tape image catalog from the 7.1 server using binary mode.
D. Use the target release parameter *RECOVER and the access path parameter set to VSR4MO.
Answer: B

IBM   000-129   000-129   000-129

NO.7 What are the key benefits provided by database journaling?
A. Can send updates concurrently to a second system
Can back out incomplete transactions
Can reduce system I/O workload
B. Can reduce application complexity
Can back out incomplete transactions
Can maintain database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
C. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can increase performance
Can maintain database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
D. Can send updates concurrently to a second system
Can back out incomplete transactions and commitment control
Can maintain database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
Answer: D

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NO.8 A batch job runs daily in the QBATCH subsystem with a run priority of 50. The job normally
takes
an hour to complete and no other batch jobs run during this time.
The administrator needs to reduce the run time and requests the run priority be lowered to 40.
However1 after the change, run time does not decrease.
What is the likely reason that the run time did not decrease?
A. The run priority applies to only interactive jobs.
B. D82 Symmetric Multiprocessing has not been installed.
C. The run priority represents only the relative importance of the job.
D. The system value QPFRADJ (Performance Adjustment) is set to No adjustment.
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator needs to restore a physical file DATALIB/SMALLFILE from a Save 21 backup of
library DATALIB. DATALIB has several hundred large database files plus other objects.
The administrator has the job log and output from the last full save of DATALIB.
What should the administrator do to restore SMALLFILE in the shortest time?
A. Run the RST command for object /QSYS.LIB/DATALIB.LIB/SMALLFILE.FILE
B. Delete SMALLFILE, run RSTLIB specifying *NEW objects, and specify library DATALIB as the
starting library.
C. Run RSTLIB for library DATALIB specifying the position parameter for SMALLFILEin library
DATALIB from the output of the save.
D. Run RSTOBJ for DATALIB/SMALLFILEspecifying the position and sequence number for
SMALLFILEin library DATALIB from the output of the save.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Due to an application problem, management has requested the IPL of a partition running IBM
i
7.1. The administrator initiates the IPL, and during the restart phase notices the IPL is running in
manual mode even though the HMC partition settings indicate B NORMAL.
Why is the IPL running in manual mode?
A. The PWRDWNSYS command restart parameter is set to *MANUAL.
B. Manual is the default IPL mode when there is a console problem.
C. The QIPLTYPE system value is set to Attended IPL, Console in debug mode.
D. Manual is the default IPL mode when the previous system end indicator is abnormal.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BAS-001
Exam Name: IBM (IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 The Object Manager tool provided with OpenPages allows for the import and export of data
in
which format?
A. XLS
B. SQL
C. PDF
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are working with an AECON data sheet. What are two global configurations? (Choose
two.)
A. Dependent picklists
B. Detail View
C. Field dependencies
D. Activity Views
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new
OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organization structure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A user requires the ability to create child Processes directly associated to parent Business
Entities
in the application. Which minimum Security Access Control Permissions should the administrator
grant to the user’s role template?
A. Grant read access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
B. Grant read/write access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
C. Grant read/write/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write access on the Process.
D. Grant read/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are using the OpenPages GPO platform and want to develop a new workflow. Which tool
would you use?
A. Interstage BPM Console
B. Interstage BPM Workflow Studio
C. CommandCenter Query Studio
D. Microsoft Office Visio
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to configure new fields in the IBM OpenPages platform using data types. What are
three
valid data types? (Choose three.)
A. Single file
B. Reporting fragment
C. Picklist
D. Currency
E. Rich text
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which three statements describe valid business benefits of IBM OpenPages platform modules?
(Choose three.)
A. Provides confidence that compliance is achieved, risks are mitigated and corporate policies and
procedures are enforced.
B. Provides a compliance and business focused view into the corporate general ledger.
C. Provides executive management with assurance into the state of compliance.
D. Standardizes compliance across regulations to reduce cost and deliver a holistic understanding
of all compliance risk.
E. Provides assurance to executive management that the company meets all corporate board
governance goals.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 In IBM OpenPages, you want to configure a profile. Which three functions are available?
(Choose
three.)
A. Associate users.
B. Add new fields to the database.
C. Set localized object text.
D. Set up a home page.
E. Configure views for an object type.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 Which three values are correct Object Manager command line parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Dump or “d”
B. Extract or “e”
C. Load or “l”
D. Verify or “V”
E. Test or“t”
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 000-N40
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Management Optim Technical Mastery v3)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 After the data has been archived, what components does Optim require in order to provide
and
configure seamless access to archive files/collections via ODBC/JDBC/XML?
A. Archive File and Archive File Collection
B. Optim Data Growth and Application Retirement
C. Optim Test Data Management and Data Privacy
D. Optim Connect Studio, Optim Connect Server and Optim Connect Thin Clients
Answer: D

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NO.2 When can a convert process be initiated using the Optim Designer/Manager interface?
A. During an extract process and an edit process
B. During an archive process and an extract process
C. During an archive process and as a standalone convert process
D. During an insert/load process and as a standalone convert process
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does Optim Designer require in order to communicate with a database server?
A. ODBC Driver
B. JDBC Driver
C. DBMS Client
D. Optim Connect
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following value propositions is true with regards to Optim's Data Privacy
capability?
A. Provide access control by using one or more encryption keys to encrypt data on disk
B. De-identify sensitive information by defining your own masking functions written in Java or C++
C. Monitor and track access to all sensitive information
D. Ensure masked data is contextually appropriate to the data it replaced by using built-in lookup
and transformation functions
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which scripting language is used to define custom masking functions?
A. LUA
B. Perl
C. Java
D. PHP
Answer: A

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NO.6 An organization uses Optim Archiving to archive historical data from their Siebel application.
The
application users want to view the archived Siebel records directly from the Siebel interface. Which
of the following archive access options should be implemented?
A. ODBC Access
B. JDBC Access
C. Native Application Access
D. XML
Answer: C

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NO.7 What objects can be compared using the Compare tool?
A. extract file against a database table
B. load file against converted extract file
C. archive file against another archive file
D. archive index file against database table
Answer: A

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NO.8 The data in an extract file is to be inserted into a new test database in which tables and
relationships have not been defined. Which Optim utility should be used to define the database
object before running the insert process?
A. Edit utility
B. Load utility
C. Create utility
D. Browse utility
Answer: C

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NO.9 What can be used to view data in an archive or extract file?
A. Browse Utility
B. View Tool
C. Create Utility
D. Optim Connect
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a complete set of requirements that need to be true in order to access Optim archive
files
through Optim Connect?
A. Archive files must be registered in an Optim Directory and be accessible from the Optim
Connect Server on which the data source is defined.
B. Archive files must be registered in an Optim Directory and its location must be defined in Optim
Manager
C. Archive files must be accessible from the Optim Connect Server on which the data source is
defined and its location must be defined in Optim
Manager
D. The archived data must be restored to a database before using Optim Connect to access the
archived files
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-651
Exam Name: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Maximo Asset Management Solutions V3)
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Total Q&A: 144 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which item describes the basic concept of Total Productive Maintenance which is a
maintenance
methodology that a customer may subscribe to?
A. fix it before it breaks
B. all assets in use, generating value
C. all maintenance personnel in use, productively
D. zero error, zero work-related accidents, and zero loss
Answer: D

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NO.2 Across IBM Maximo Asset Management implementations, what is least likely to be
implemented at
the completion of the project (go-live date)?
A. inventory
B. work order
C. labor planning
D. preventive maintenance
Answer: C

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NO.3 When creating a new PM, where are detailed task steps defined?
A. on the route
B. inajobplan
C. inthePMplans
D. onthemasterPM
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which actions are required to perform a gap analysis?
A. ldenti1i the capabilities of the software product and relate these capabilities to the executable
high-level business process steps.
B. Compare the current system with potential new standard software systems, and document and
analyze the gaps between these systems.
C. Identify all gaps between the current and future business processes, and document the steps to
resolve the differences between these processes.
D. Compare the to-be business processes with the reference processes from the standard
software system, and document and analyze the differences.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which IBM Tivoli product automates license tracking in order to meet compliance
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Service Provider
B. IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. IBM Maximo Asset Management
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 To prepare for detailed Reliability’ Centered Maintenance (RCM) analysis, important decisions
need to be made regarding the way equipment is classified from the main system to subsystem
and within unit levels. This must be done in a way that is consistent with the existing maintenance
strategy, tasks, routines, and levels of unit replacement. Which features and functions enable the
classification and navigation through this structure?
A. Drill Down and Classification
B. Drill Down and Select Action
C. Classification and Service Catalog
D. Select Action and Service Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is used to compare the estimate versus actual cost for a job?
A. The project cost accounting application
B. Job plan resources and actual resources
C. Work plan resources and actual resources
D. GL debit accounts and GL credit accounts
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which industry solution based on IBM Maximo Asset Management provides the ability to record and manage smart meters?
A. IBM Maximo for Utilities
B. IBM Maximo for Government
C. IBM Maximo for Oil and Gas
D. IBM Maximo for Transportation
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a possible line type value on a purchase order line?
A. Asset
B. Material
C. Inventory
D. Standard Tool
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer has many assets that they would like to record and create master preventive maintenance records for in IBM Maximo Asset Management (Maximo). Which type of record, when purchasing, would create these assets in Maximo?
A. Rotating Items
B. Rotating Assets
C. Non-rotating Items
D. Non-rotating Assets
Answer: A

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