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Exam Code: P4070-005
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z and z/OS Fundamentals Mastery)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility?
A.CTC ring
B.Shared DASD
C.Parallel Sysplex
D.zAAP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following describes the z/OS Communications Storage Manager (CSM)?
A.Communications Server disk storage
B.Layered network model storage
C.RFC common storage standard
D.Shared I/O buffer for data flow
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following z/OS UNIX files determines the behavior of a z/OS HTTP Server
request passed
to a plug-in?
A.plugin-cfg.xml
B.plugin-cfg xml
C.polugin.conf
D.profile
Answer: A

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NO.4 SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are considered
what type of
z/OS-specific HTTP functions?
A.File Caching
B.Security
C.Add-on
D.Basic
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON
channels?
A.ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower
B.ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre connections
C.ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels
D.FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following enables network devices to communicate with SNA applications
in the z/OS
environment?
A.BTAM
B.VSAM
C.VTAM
D.BDAM
Answer: C

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NO.7 What master catalog entry relates to the name of a user catalog?
A.HLQ
B.VVDS
C.ALIAS
D.Alternate index
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which of the following is true of Type 4 JDBC drivers?
A.Fully written in java, can be ported to any platform that supports DBMS protocol.
B.JDBC API calls platform and database specific code to access the database.
C.JDBC default driver for z/OS
D.Offers the best performance
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following can identify a base software component?
A.Message format
B.Software update list
C.System log routing table descriptor
D.Three characters in message identifier
Answer: D

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NO.10 IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL).Which of the
following accurately
describes a function of one of these specialty processors?
A.zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.
B.IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM
C.zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first
D.SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2070-581
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.1, Specialist)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B

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NO.2 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage
area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect
to the Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:
All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A
complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be
replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?
A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D

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NO.7 For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of
partitioning will reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.
B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware
applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D

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NO.9 When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they
specify an alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2040-925
Exam Name: IBM (Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When creating the ID Vault for your domain, which of the following cannot be the name
of the vault?
A. The name of the server the vault is created on
B. The name of the administrator creating the vault
C. The name of the group that will manage the id vault
D. The same as an organizational unit used in the Domino domain
Answer: D

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NO.2 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes
the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A. There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B. Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who
share a common
organizational certifier.
C. Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory.
Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D. Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users
and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one
of the following
describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option
available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The
administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary
directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary
directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image
files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A. Enforce ECLs
B. Create File Protection documents
C. Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D. Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which ONE of the following is required when setting up transactional logging on a
server?
A. Enable Transactional Logging in the server document.
B. Add TRANS_LOG=1 to the server's NOTES.INI file.
C. Create a Transactional Logging document in the Directory Catalog.
D. Modify the NOTES.INI log settings to read LOG=LOG.NSF, TRANSLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.6 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which
Domino server
hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not
configured?
A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Answer: A

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NO.7 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary
directory must only
be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of mbiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory
that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are optional advanced services that must be enabled manually
when first
configuring and installing the Domino server?
A. SMTP server
B. Agent Manager
C. Calendar Connector
D. DOLS (Domino Off-Line Services)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Chaz, the Domino administrator, has noticed performance issues when LDAP
searches are being
performed against the Domino Directory. Which of the following is the best offered solution to
improve
performance?
A. Extend the LDAP schema to add new attributes
B. Create a full text index of the Domino Directory
C. Configure Directory Assistance to load all users into memory in advance
D. Delete the ($LDAP) view in the Domino Directory and let it rebuild automatically
Answer: B

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NO.10 In order to create a Domino cluster, which rights are required for you to have to the
Domino Directory.?
A. Editor access rights and ClusterModifier role
B. Reader access rights and ServerWriter and ServerManager roles
C. Designer access rights and ClusterCreator and ClusterModifier roles
D. Author access and Delete Documents rights and the ServerModifier and ServerCreator
roles
Answer: D

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NO.11 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of
the following?
A. Password database
B. Certifier document
C. Password hash file
D. Certifier database
Answer: B

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NO.12 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document
placed?
A. NAMES.NSF
B. CERTLOG.NSF
C. CATALOG.NSF
D. DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.13 In order for Peggy to establish alternate message recall settings on a per server basis,
which of the
following is the best solution?
A. Configure the message recall settings in an organization level policy
B. Configure the message recall settings in each server's notes.ini file
C. Configure the message recall settings in each server configuration document
D. Configure the message recall settings in explicit policies and manually apply to users
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the following scenario, what will occur if the sender attempts to recall a message
after 10 days
have elapsed since it was originally sent to the recipient: - The sender and recipient are on
the same mail
server - The server is configured to allow message recall - The recipient is a member of a
group policy
that allows message recall - The sender is a member of a group policy that does not allow
message recall
- The sender has an explicit policy that allows message recall Message recall is allowed for
14 days for
the sender - Message recall is allowed for 8 days for the recipient
A. The sender will be allowed to recall the sent message
B. The sender will not be allowed to recall the sent message
C. The sender will receive a non-delivery report back stating the message recall failed
D. The sender will be prompted that they have exceeded the maximum time allowed for
message recall
Answer: A

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NO.15 A Notes mail message is sent by Miguel to an Internet address through an adjacent
Domino domain
over NRPC that then sends mail to the Internet over SMTP. Miguel is now attempting to
recall the mail
message. Which of the following will be the result of his attempt?
A. He will receive an email that he cannot recall the email message
B. He will immediately receive a prompt that the message is not enabled for message recall
C. He will receive a message from the Internet recipients mail server that the message
cannot be recalled
D. He will successfully recall the message if it is allowed in the server configuration and
enabled in his
user policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2060-218
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM Sterling B2B Integrator V5.2, Solution Implementation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A company wants to change their document storage to file system storage for a IBM Sterling B2B
Integrator (SBI) cluster deployment. Which configuration needs to exist?
A. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
B. with a shared file system mounted as /FS: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=shared
C. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/FS
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
D. with a shared file system mounted as /shared: document_dir.jdbc.properties=/shared
defaultDocumentStorageType.jdbc.properties=FS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Based on the screen shot, how many days will documents and other trackable data stay in the system
by default?
A. 1 dayA.1 day
B. 2 daysB.2 days
C. 3 daysC.3 days
D. The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
D.The setting is controlled at the individual Business Process (BP) level.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has deployed a two node active-active IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) cluster in the
secure zone on two servers. The customer has installed two servers in the DMZ for the purpose of
installing remote SBI Perimeter Servers to facilitate communications with external partners. External
partners will connect to an external IP Load Balancer that will distribute inbound FTP/S, SFTP and HTTP
Client sessions across the Perimeter Servers. The customer requirement is that if any single server fails,
all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server instances must continue to activelyThe customer.?
requirement is that if any single server fails, all the other SBI nodes and remote Perimeter Server
instances must continue to actively handle inbound sessions for each protocol. What is the minimum
number of remote Perimeter Server instances that must be deployed in the DMZ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company is planning to offer FTPS connection to its community of trading partners. They already
have one server certificate in IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) that they want to use for the FTPS server
in the production environment. In the development environment they want to use a self-signed test
certificate. Where can the test certificate be created?
A. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > CA
B. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Trusted
C. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > System
D. Trading Partner > Digital Certificates > Cert Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 What would cause the IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) database size to continually grow and thus
impact performance?
A. persistence level set to FULL
B. improperly sized database connection pools
C. index, archive, and purge services not running
D. incorrect number of database threads assigned
Answer: C

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NO.6 A developer has created a Business Process (BP) that uses the File System Adapter to write a file to the
file system. Where should the target file name be stored in the BP so that the File System Adapter can
retrieve it?
A. Primary Data
B. Process Data
C. Primary Document
D. Process Document
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given the following information from the servers.properties file:
noapp=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties jboss=/home/SBI/properties/noapp.properties
jdbcService=/home/SBI/properties/jdbc.properties
jdbcServiceCustomer=/home/SIB/properties/jdbc_customer.properties
si_config=/home/SBI/properties/sandbox.cfg
customer_overrides=/home/SBI/properties/customer_overrides.properties
filesystem=/home/SBI/properties/filesystem.properties
The customer would like to change the default directory to store on-disk documents to a new directory.
How should this override be configured in the system?
A. Edit sandbox.cfg and add document_dir=<new directory full path>.
B. Edit filesystem.properties and add filesystem.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
C. Edit customer_overrides.properties and add jdbcService.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
D. Edit jdbc_customer.properties and add jdbcServiceCustomer.document_dir=<new directory full path>.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A Business Process (BP) implementer wants to use the Document Keyword Replace Service in the
Graphical Process Modeler (GPM) but the service is not showing in the All Services stencil. What needs
to be done to make the Document Keyword Replace Service show in the GPM?
A. Update the license file.
B. Create a service configuration.
C. Execute install3rdParty.sh/.cmd.
D. Add JavaTask to adapters.properties.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A company allows trading partners to send files to it via SFTP. Which port needs to be configured on
the SFTP Server adapter to define the communication port?
A. Data Port
B. Send Port
C. Listen Port
D. Passive Port
Answer: C

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NO.10 Of the locations where persistence levels can be set, which has the highest precedence?
A. Global
B. System
C. Trading Partner
D. Business Process (BP) Definition
Answer: D

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NO.11 A company has set up an adapter Container JVM to increase performance and reliability. Which three
server adapters are available to be used with the container? (Choose three.)
A. Connect:Direct
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. JMS
E. OFTP
F. SMTP
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 A company requires FTP users to be unable to login after five failed login attempts. How can this be
accomplished?
A. Create a Lockout Policy.
B. Configure the FTP user account.
C. Configure a LoginPolicy service configuration.
D. Add an entry to customer_overrides.properties.
Answer: A

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NO.13 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) uses a certificate to encrypt persisted documents. If this certificate
needs to be replaced with a deployment specific certificate, which certificate store is the new certificate
imported into before updating the certificate name in the customer overrides property file?
A. CA
B. Trusted
C. System
D. Certificate
Answer: C

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NO.14 IBM Sterling B2B Integrator (SBI) is installed with a LDAP connection to allow users to log in using
their username/password stored in the LDAP server. A user is created in SBI as a local user and the
InternalUser password policy is specified. The InternalUser policy states that the password has to be
changed every 30 days. After 29 days the SBI security administrator deletes the InternalUser policy from
the system. When the user logs in two days later, will the user be prompted to change the password?
A. Yes, because of the configuration of the original password policy.
B. No, because the policy is deleted so the user has no password policy.
C. The user will not be logged in because there is no valid policy specified.
D. No, the policy is irrelevant since the password is managed by the LDAP server.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The system default for the amount of time a Business Process (BP) remains online in the system is set
to five days. How can that value be overridden?
A. Update noapp.properties.
B. Modify the lifespan setting for a BP.
C. Update with the Performance Tuning wizard.
D. Create a new Retention Service configuration.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2180-178
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Development)
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Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A developer is integrating WebSphere Lombardi Edition with an external system using a SOAP
connector. What language should the developer use in the SOAP request for the integration to function
properly?
A. XML
B. XSLT
C. HTML
D. XHTML
Answer: A

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NO.2 A developer implements the following service:
What does the developer find after the service attempts to handle the exception if the Special Handler
script fails?
A. The service is terminated.
B. The script is executed repeatedly until the error is resolved.
C. The service throws the exception to be caught by a higher level service or process.
D. An exception is caught and processed within the current activity and then the service terminates.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A developer needs to use the static custom Java API that was developed by another development team.
The developer needs to use that custom API directly in the Lombardi process application and toolkits.
Which one of the following connectors must the developer use to fulfill the above requirement?
A. API Connector
B. HTTP Connector
C. Java Connector
D. SOAP Connector
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer builds an integration service using a Java Integration Component, and wants the result of
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element. What must the developer do to ensure this.?
A. Enable the Translate JavaBeans check box.
B. Nest the Integration service in another service.
C. Choose the method that you want to call on the class.
D. Click the Variables tab for the Integration service to add any input variables.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer requires a service to query a database. The database does not have any restrictions on
user/system permissions or on the operations allowed to be performed by users/systems. Which of the
following operations can the developer perform on the database with the SQL Execute Statement
service?
A. Read, write and update
B. Read only, not write or update
C. Read only, not write or update, and binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read
D. Read, write and update, but binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read, written, or updated
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C4040-221
Exam Name: IBM (AIX 7 Administration )
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Total Q&A: 229 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal
program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred
firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is
shutdown and restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will
automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware
contains major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase "/var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a
system with 6 physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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NO.4 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.6 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command
will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition'.
Answer: A

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administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2020-605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer)
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Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

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NO.2 The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions
will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C

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NO.4 End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What
must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C

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NO.5 In the diagrams below, a journal entry for Cash (account B100000, an asset account in the balance
sheet) and External Reserves (account R100_000, a cost account in the income statement) is recorded in
the amount of 100. The balance sheet in the Journals Across report does not balance anymore because
Total Assets (account B450000) has a value of 1200 and Total Liabilities and Equity (account B750000)
has a value of 1100. What caused the difference between the Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Equity
accounts?
A. The company journal type, US GAAP, should credit account B711000 for 100.
B. Balance Sheet for Net Income in the general configuration should be B711000.
C. In the general configuration, no value has been specified in the Other Difference for Automatic
Journals field
D. Net Income (Non-integrated) in the general configuration should be B711000.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use
Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready
Answer: C

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NO.7 When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory
fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to the
journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there is no
amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to convert the
local amount for the current year?
A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used
Answer: A

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NO.9 How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's rules.?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?
A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can
reconcile and differences
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base extensions
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Movement journals
Answer: C

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NO.13 End users report data on a weekly basis. They want to be able to work with as many weeks as possible
in a single fiscal year. When configuring the application, what is the maximum number of weeks that an
administrator can specify for a year?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B

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NO.14 An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the
administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?
A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A

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NO.15 A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to
improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P6040-025
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 743 and 784 Technical Mastery )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which component can be replaced without removing the pullout tray?
A. I/O module
B. memory module
C. processor fan
D. hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.2 The IBM SurePOS x43 point-of-sale (POS) system uses the prefixes "S", "E", and "C"
to indicate
specific models. What do these prefixes stand for?
A. "S" refers to the superior model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C"
indicates a
customer model.
B. "S" indicates an administrative model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C"
indicates a
controller model.
C. "S" refers to the model geared to the supermarket segment; "E" refers to the entry level
model; "C"
indicates a customer model.
D. "S" refers to the model geared to the specialty segment; "E" refers to the entry level
model; "C"
indicates a controller model.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS x43 and x84
systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the minimum clearance required around the system unit for proper airflow and
cooling?
A. one inch on all sides
B. six inches on all sides
C. two to three inches on all sides
D. four to five inches on all sides
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer is considering upgrading to SurePOS 784 systems. They need two PCI
slots and they are
concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should a
technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 784 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 743 models.
D. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the
additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
E. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS x43 and x84 models have two PCI
slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the location of the two hard disk drives that the SurePOS
x43 and x84
accommodate?
A. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the back of the system unit to the left of the
power supply.
B. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the right front of the system unit directly
behind the drive
bay door.
C. The first hard disk drive is located at the front left of the system and the second drive is
located next to
it horizontally (front right).
D. The first hard disk drive is located at the front right of the system directly behind the drive
bay door and
the second drive is located at the back of the system unit.
Answer: B

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NO.7 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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NO.8 Light-Path Management consists of which three components? (Choose three.)
A. LEDs
B. remote management
C. service processor
D. USB memory manager
E. uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
F. second hard drive containing diagnostics
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which three types of ports are standard on all SurePOS x43 and x84 models? (Choose
three.)
A. two VGA ports
B. two PC USB ports
C. two RS-485 ports
D. one parallel port
E. two powered USB ports
F. audio mic-in/line out ports
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.10 Which three systems management capabilities are supported on the SurePOS x43 and
x84 models.?
(Choose three.)
A. Wake on LAN (WOL)
B. Wake on WiFi (WOW)
C. Wake on Touch (WOT)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
E. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: C2060-220
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
assigning a virtual IP address to the cluster to which each node is then bound to. Which local node
parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

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NO.7 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

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NO.8 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing
environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.11 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

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NO.13 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
properties tab in the CD Admin Tool?
A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

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NO.14 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

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NO.15 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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NO.20 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

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